jusjod asked this question on 4/27/2000:

You misunderstood my question, I am not asking you for help in violating the law, as I do not drink any more and drive drunk for that matter. My question was, how does the system think that making people take a unrine test, is proving anything, as long as there are Detoxant products over the counter that people can take before hand. As for me, I am paranoid, thus I bought some, as I am going through a custody case with my x-spouse, and I don't want ANYTHING to screw with my urine, such as Nyquil or my prescription drugs, which to my understanding could agrivate the urine test. Sorry if I came off as a criminal, I make a terrible mistake, and I have changed my ways, I was just curious.

jellygator gave this response on 4/27/2000:

I didn't think you were a criminal. But many people feel that they should be entitled to drink while they've been told not to. I don't happen to agree with helping this happen.

The courts can use such a requirement because the types of products you mention are unreliable and don't cover all the bases. These products may help some, but an awful lot of people get caught when they figured that G.S. would clear them out.