Anonymous asked this question on 3/5/2000:

How can a man, that was caught exposing himself and with a record for being a pedophile get off with just paying fines. After he exposed himself on several occassions to 2 little girls.?

cruzmsl gave this response on 3/14/2000:

Well it has alot to do with the criminal system you live in and the "fruits of the crime" In this situation there are different charges that an apply. For an individual to be charged with a specific crime, he must show the intention and possess the "fruits of the crime" Fruits of the crime are actions which specify a charge. Such as urinating in public, almost 9 out of 10 will want to convict him of "indecent exposure" when in actuality he or she was not intentionally exposing him or herself for sexual gratification, therefore will be charged with "disorderly conduct" because the individual was "reckless" as too where he or she urinated. Still with me? As for the above individual, the same properties can apply (state and local laws applying) he probably was originally charged with indecent exposure to a minor, which then gets whittled down to disorderly conduct depending on the attorney. Here in Texas, we have a zero tolerance for sexcrimes involving minors and juveniles. If you can supply me with more information of the actual charges and state you live in, I can give you the reason why he is getting of so easy, in my opinion it starts with the arresting officer, if he cannot produce a good primary investigation then thats where the case starts to whittle down. Try this site for more information. www.lawguru.com hope I helped, please vote :)

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